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Peter Frost's avatar

"it is worth keeping in mind that the vast majority of suspects (around 80%) are not black"

Perhaps black ethnicity isn't the relevant factor. Perhaps we should distinguish between two groups:

1) Populations where the state has long exercised a monopoly over the use of violence, i.e., most Europeans, almost all East Asians, most South Asians and certain Middle Eastern groups. In these populations, the state has gradually altered the composition of the gene pool through capital punishment, extrajudicial killings, suppression of rebellions, etc. As a result, the threshold for personal violence is relatively high, and there is strong inhibition against violent behaviour in most social contexts.

2) Populations where the state monopoly on violence is recent and has not influenced the gene pool. All adult males are expected to use violence to defend themselves and their loved ones, and such violence can be pre-emptive or even "for show" (to deter potential assailants).

How does the UK government define "white"? Are there statistics that differentiate between native-born white British and other national groups?

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Marvin's avatar

> Exactly what explains this overrepresentation [of Blacks] is still a matter of debate. We do know that poverty, IQ and family breakdown can only explain part.

Trying to pin it on intermediary “explanations” such as poverty or family breakdown is just politically correct obfuscation at this point. These are just intermediary steps in a causal chain that begins with genetics. Over hundreds of years, there hasn't been an environment where Blacks haven't been disproportionately criminal, promiscuous, and poor. That rules out environmental causes. That means the disparity is genetic. Where am I wrong? What are the viable environmental explanations left?

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